MCQ Collection
Australia & New Zealand MCQs
Practice Australia & New Zealand questions with answers and explanations.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
B.
Phase I is limited to renal filtration.
C.
Phase I reactions occur only outside the body.
D.
Phase I always produces an inactive metabolite.
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Correct Answer: A. Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Explanation:
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
13.2
B.
114.1
C.
87.6
D.
99.9
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Correct Answer: C. 87.6
Explanation:
Use fraction remaining=e^(−kt).
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Blinding always increases sample size.
B.
A case report proves population causality.
C.
Randomisation guarantees zero measurement error.
D.
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
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Correct Answer: D. A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Explanation:
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
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A.
It is independent of prevalence.
B.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
C.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
D.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
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Correct Answer: C. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
B.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
C.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
D.
It prevents every adverse effect.
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Correct Answer: A. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Randomisation guarantees zero measurement error.
B.
Blinding always increases sample size.
C.
A case report proves population causality.
D.
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Explanation:
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
B.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
C.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
D.
It is independent of prevalence.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
B.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
C.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
D.
It prevents every adverse effect.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
46978
B.
6.82
C.
0.147
D.
8.82
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Correct Answer: B. 6.82
Explanation:
Concentration=amount/volume.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
39.6
B.
4791.6
C.
44.0
D.
0.025
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Correct Answer: A. 39.6
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
12.5
B.
25
C.
6.25
D.
50
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Correct Answer: A. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
B.
It always raises the maximal response.
C.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
D.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
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Correct Answer: C. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.