MCQ Collection
Australia & New Zealand MCQs
Practice Australia & New Zealand questions with answers and explanations.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
0.059
B.
17.0
C.
1700.0
D.
34.0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 17.0
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
6.25
B.
12.5
C.
50
D.
25
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It always raises the maximal response.
B.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
C.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
D.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It guarantees chemical stability.
B.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
C.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
D.
It always decreases surface area.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
B.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
C.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
D.
It is independent of prevalence.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It prevents every adverse effect.
B.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
C.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
D.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
0.343
B.
22098
C.
4.92
D.
2.92
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 2.92
Explanation:
Concentration=amount/volume.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
2886.4
B.
0.042
C.
29.82
D.
23.85
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 23.85
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
25
B.
6.25
C.
50
D.
12.5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It always raises the maximal response.
B.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
C.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
D.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
B.
It always decreases surface area.
C.
It guarantees chemical stability.
D.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
5.4
B.
0.1
C.
10.0
D.
1.0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 10.0
Explanation:
For a weak acid, [A−]/[HA]=10^(pH−pKa).
