MCQ Collection
opra MCQs
Practice opra questions with answers and explanations.
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A.
Bactericidal agents cannot have resistance.
B.
Both terms mean viral inactivation.
C.
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
D.
Bacteriostatic agents always destroy spores.
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Correct Answer: C. Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
Explanation:
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
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A.
Phase I reactions occur only outside the body.
B.
Phase I is limited to renal filtration.
C.
Phase I always produces an inactive metabolite.
D.
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
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Correct Answer: D. Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Explanation:
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
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A.
150.4
B.
66.5
C.
99.6
D.
40.8
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Correct Answer: B. 66.5
Explanation:
Use fraction remaining=e^(−kt).
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A.
A case report proves population causality.
B.
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
C.
Blinding always increases sample size.
D.
Randomisation guarantees zero measurement error.
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Correct Answer: B. A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Explanation:
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
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A.
It is independent of prevalence.
B.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
C.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
D.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
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Correct Answer: C. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
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A.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
B.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
C.
It prevents every adverse effect.
D.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
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Correct Answer: D. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
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A.
5.04
B.
7.04
C.
31442
D.
0.198
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Correct Answer: A. 5.04
Explanation:
Concentration=amount/volume.
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A.
40.0
B.
1000.0
C.
0.025
D.
80.0
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Correct Answer: A. 40.0
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
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A.
6.25
B.
25
C.
12.5
D.
50
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Correct Answer: C. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
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A.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
B.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
C.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
D.
It always raises the maximal response.
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Correct Answer: C. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
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A.
It always decreases surface area.
B.
It guarantees chemical stability.
C.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
D.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
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Correct Answer: D. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
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A.
10.0
B.
4.8
C.
1.0
D.
0.1
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Correct Answer: A. 10.0
Explanation:
For a weak acid, [A−]/[HA]=10^(pH−pKa).
