MCQ Collection
opra MCQs
Practice opra questions with answers and explanations.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
187.8
B.
63.0
C.
53.3
D.
99.4
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Correct Answer: C. 53.3
Explanation:
Use fraction remaining=e^(−kt).
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A.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
B.
It is independent of prevalence.
C.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
D.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
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Correct Answer: C. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
B.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
C.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
D.
It prevents every adverse effect.
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Correct Answer: C. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
0.179
B.
25058
C.
5.58
D.
7.58
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Correct Answer: C. 5.58
Explanation:
Concentration=amount/volume.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
1862.4
B.
51.73
C.
0.019
D.
64.67
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Correct Answer: B. 51.73
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
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A.
50
B.
6.25
C.
12.5
D.
25
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Correct Answer: C. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
B.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
C.
It always raises the maximal response.
D.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
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Correct Answer: D. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It always decreases surface area.
B.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
C.
It guarantees chemical stability.
D.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
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Correct Answer: B. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
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A.
10.0
B.
5.4
C.
1.0
D.
0.1
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Correct Answer: A. 10.0
Explanation:
For a weak acid, [A−]/[HA]=10^(pH−pKa).
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
B.
Bacteriostatic agents always destroy spores.
C.
Bactericidal agents cannot have resistance.
D.
Both terms mean viral inactivation.
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Correct Answer: A. Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
Explanation:
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
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A.
Phase I reactions occur only outside the body.
B.
Phase I always produces an inactive metabolite.
C.
Phase I is limited to renal filtration.
D.
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
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Correct Answer: D. Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Explanation:
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It guarantees chemical stability.
B.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
C.
It always decreases surface area.
D.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
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Correct Answer: D. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.