MCQ Collection
OPRA Pharmaceutical Sciences MCQs
Practice OPRA Pharmaceutical Sciences questions with answers and explanations.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
10.0
B.
4.2
C.
1.0
D.
0.1
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Correct Answer: A. 10.0
Explanation:
For a weak acid, [A−]/[HA]=10^(pH−pKa).
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
B.
It guarantees chemical stability.
C.
It always decreases surface area.
D.
It eliminates first-pass metabolism.
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Correct Answer: A. Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Explanation:
Reducing particle size can increase dissolution rate by increasing surface area.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
0.1
B.
10.0
C.
4.8
D.
1.0
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Correct Answer: B. 10.0
Explanation:
For a weak acid, [A−]/[HA]=10^(pH−pKa).
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
B.
Bacteriostatic agents always destroy spores.
C.
Bactericidal agents cannot have resistance.
D.
Both terms mean viral inactivation.
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Correct Answer: A. Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
Explanation:
Bactericidal activity kills susceptible bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic activity inhibits growth.
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A.
Phase I reactions occur only outside the body.
B.
Phase I is limited to renal filtration.
C.
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
D.
Phase I always produces an inactive metabolite.
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Correct Answer: C. Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Explanation:
Phase I reactions commonly introduce or expose functional groups through oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
A case report proves population causality.
B.
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
C.
Blinding always increases sample size.
D.
Randomisation guarantees zero measurement error.
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Correct Answer: B. A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Explanation:
A randomised controlled design reduces allocation bias and supports causal inference when well conducted.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It is independent of prevalence.
B.
It must be 100% when specificity is above 50%.
C.
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
D.
It is always equal to sensitivity.
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Correct Answer: C. Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Explanation:
Positive predictive value depends on disease prevalence as well as test performance.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It guarantees immediate peak concentration.
B.
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
C.
It is identical to an intravenous bolus.
D.
It prevents every adverse effect.
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Correct Answer: B. A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Explanation:
A depot formulation can prolong drug release and reduce dosing frequency.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
16.36
B.
18.36
C.
24882
D.
0.061
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Correct Answer: A. 16.36
Explanation:
Concentration=amount/volume.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
15.0
B.
480.0
C.
0.133
D.
7.5
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Correct Answer: D. 7.5
Explanation:
Apply AUC=F×Dose/CL.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
6.25
B.
12.5
C.
25
D.
50
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Correct Answer: B. 12.5
Explanation:
After three half-lives, (1/2)^3=12.5%.
Choose an option to check your answer.
A.
It irreversibly increases efficacy.
B.
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
C.
It removes the need for agonist binding.
D.
It always raises the maximal response.
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Correct Answer: B. A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
Explanation:
A competitive antagonist usually shifts the agonist concentration–response curve to the right without reducing the maximal response.
